Re: Help with Assembler code

if You look at the assembler listing ( the expansion of the instruction )
You will understand better what we are trying to tell You
You will understand better what we are trying to tell You
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https://www.ibmmainframeforum.com/assembler/topic11254-10.html
NO! When assembled, the code that is to be executed for the TM 0(R5),X'00') is X'91005000' -- 91 is the op code, 00 is the test byte, 5 is the register and 000 is the offset from the register. The X'91' is stored at location XXXXBITS, the X'00' at XXXXBITS+1, and the X'5000' at XXXXBITS+2 and +3. So if you change XXXXBITS+1, then you change -- during execution of the program -- the TM from looking at X'00' to whatever you changed the byte to.I havent understood this completely.Is it that X'00' and XXXXBITS+1 point to the same storage location ?
No no, and no.ramkumar1992sp wrote:Thanks Steve.
I see the instruction is modified using Register RB before the TM instruction is executed.This isn't a new program.It looks like it was written in 1972.
When the TM instruction is executed,aren't we checking the contents of RB register against the mask bits of zeroes.How is the value of XXXXBITS affecting it ?LA RC,XXXXBITS
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NEWMEET MVC XXXXBITS+1(1),1(RB)
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XXXXBITS TM 0(R5),X'00'
BC 5,SETCONFL
Thanks,
Ram Kumar
When the TM instruction is executed,aren't we checking the contents of RB register against the mask bits of zeroes.How is the value of XXXXBITS affecting it ?